Answer:
This topic is one of controversy. There are two modes of common thought in approaching it. Some will say that if the wives are sexually involved with one another, then it is no longer polygyny that is being practiced. The premise here is that the term Polygyny implies, that a man will be married to more than one heterosexual wives, and that those wives are in an exclusive sexual relationship with their husband. The implication generally relates to what is considered to be, or what people say was, traditional Polygynous structures.
Others indicate, that what people do in the privacy of their homes, is their private business, and that the basis for Polygyny, is that the man has more than one wife, period! That as long as that qualification is met, then it is polygyny due to the marital arrangement, regardless of whether or not sexual intimacies exist between the women.
Without debating on whether or not there is a moral prescription as to what is right or wrong here, we hold the position that as long as the man has more than one wife, it's polygyny. In such case we use the term “Bisexual Polygyny” to refer to this polygynous dynamic in which the women may be sexually intimate with one another. Some say that this is polyamory. However, polyamory does not require nor indicate marriage. One could argue that the women are in a polyamorous relationship with one another. Due to the case that the man is actually married to more than one woman, he practices polygyny, whether he does it in accord with a person's moral preferences or not, or however the wives choose to identify their relations with one another or not to.
However, if the wives consider themselves also to be married to one another AND to the husband equally, this would fall under the term “Group Marriage”, which IS generally linked to polyamorous relationships.
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